Psalm 69 and "fuller senses"

If any one doubts my repeated claims that the NT authors read the OT "spiritually" with more tangential interest in the original meaning, I was looking at the NT use of Psalm 69 today.

The early Christians read a number of verses from this psalm in relation to Jesus' last days in Jerusalem:

vs. 9 in relation to Jesus' action in the temple and in relation to Jesus' rejection in general
vs. 21 of the cross
vss. 22 and 25 of Judas

But consider vs. 5 where the psalmist speaks of his guilt and folly, something that clearly would not apply to Jesus.  In other words, the psalm had a distinct original meaning in which a psalmist cried out to God for help. And selective verses had a "spiritual" meaning to many early Christian readers of the psalm.

So as we see over and over again, the NT authors were not wired or apparently worried to read OT texts for what they meant historically.  They naturally and predominantly found "fuller senses" and figural meanings in the words.  Once again we see that a historical orientation to Scripture is a relatively recent orientation.