Even new Bible professors there, I got the sense, if they had not studied at Asbury as a grad student, could be mystified at a completely unique language used scarcely anywhere else in the academy. What do you make of a label like, "recurrence of particularization with filial language"? I don't think I really got a sense of what all that stuff was about until I adjuncted for Asbury a few times 10-15 years ago.
But I continue to find these categories incredibly helpful. I'm also teaching Romans online right now. I try to spare the lingo and of course these observations are spread out over weeks. But when I look at Romans, I am now cursed to see:
- Romans 1:16-17 as the key verses of this book ("generalization of 1:16-17 in 1:18-11:36").
- I can't help but see 1:18-5:11 as a movement from the problem--"all have sinned" (1:18-3:20) to the solution--"the faithfulness of Jesus Christ" (3:21-4:25)
- ... with Romans 3:20-31 as the greatest encapsulation of how salvation works in the whole Bible ("generalization of the solution in 3:21-4:25")
- ... and Romans 5:1-11 as the conclusion to this whole section ("generalization with logical causation").
Who will free me from this body of IBS-eze??? I'm convinced that these are all valid patterns. But who will have a clue what I am talking about?
4 comments:
As an Asbury graduate (and current D.Min. student) I understand exactly what you are talking about.
I just texted my son, Josh, for some help. I remember how much he loved the course last year. (He's my resource for "second hand" re-education of sorts.)
Hmmm...did the first and last thoughts of your post form an implicit inclusio?
Then again, I usually think that no one understand what I'm talking about--and I'd love to have some scholarly justification for the problem.
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