I'm still trying to finish an article for a dictionary. I recently found myself writing this statement, "The Gospel of Mark places this language[kingdom of God] in an apocalyptic context, which most again would argue likely goes back to the historical Jesus."
Do "most" really think that? Who do we count? Certainly most who consult this particular dictionary do. I think any good, fair minded historical Jesus scholar does. I find Crossan and Borg bad historical Jesus scholars on this score. But "most"? Certainly more books have come out for this position in the last few years than for the other side. What do you think? Do I need to reword?
P.S. Does this post qualify me as a biblioblogger? ;-)